50 Pharmacology Questions For Pharmacy Students

50 Pharmacology Questions For Pharmacy Students
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50 Pharmacology Questions For Pharmacy Students

50 Pharmacology Questions For Pharmacy Students,We hope these Qusetions very helpful for various types of compitative exams like Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam, Pharmaacy Loksewa & Various Exam Conducted by Hospital Pharmacy Questions are based on basic Pharmacology Knowledge, Helpful for expand your pharmacology Knowledge

  1. `Essential drugs’ are:
    a. Life saving drugs
    b. Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population
    c. Drugs that must be present in the emergency bag of a doctor
    d. Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoia of a country
  2. Drug administered through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:
    a. Oral
    b. Sublingual
    c. Subcutaneous
    d. Rectal
  3. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of:
    a. Weakly basic drugs
    b. Weakly acidic drugs
    c. Strong electrolytes
    d. Nonpolar drugs
  4. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by:
    a. Passive diffusion
    b. Facilitated diffusion
    c. Active transport
    d. Pinocytosis
  5. Bioavailability of drug refers to:
    a. Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
    b. Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
    c. Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces
    d. Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
  6. Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver:
    a. Phenobarbitone
    b. Propranolol
    c. Phenylbutazone
    d. Theophylline
  7. Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using:
    a. Antihypertensive drugs
    b. Levodopa
    c. Lithium carbonate
    d. MAO inhibitors
  8. The following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor:
    a. Acetazolamide
    b. Disulfiram
    c. Physostigmine
    d. Theophylline
  9. Which of the following drugs exhibits ‘therapeutic window’ phenomenon:
    a. Captopril
    b. Furosemide
    c. Diazepam
    d. Imipramine
  10. Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers:
    a. Greater safety
    b. Therapeutic superiority
    c. Capacity to produce more intense response
    d. Cost saving
  11. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its:
    a. Safety
    b. Potency
    c. Efficacy
    d. Dose variability
  12. If the effect of combination of two drugs is equal to the sum of their individual effects, the two drugs are exhibiting:
    a. Potentiation
    b. Synergism
    c. Cross tolerance
    d. Antagonism
  13. A drug which is generally administered in standard doses without the need for dose individualization is:
    a. Insulin
    b. Mebendazole
    c. Prednisolone
    d. Digoxin
  14. Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for:
    a. Drugs administered in standard doses
    b. Drugs acting by the same mechanism
    c. Antitubercular drugs
    d. Antihypertensive drugs
  15. The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to:
    a. Digoxin
    b. Salbutamol
    c. Propranolol
    d. Nifedipine
  16. Which of the following is a type B (unpredictable) adverse drug reaction:
    a. Side effect
    b. Toxic effect
    c. Idiosyncrasy
    d. Physical dependence
  17. A ‘toxic effect’ differs from a ‘side effect’ in that:
    a. It is not a pharmacological effect of the drug
    b. It is a more intense pharmacological effect that occurs at high dose or after prolonged medication
    c. It must involve drug induced cellular injury
    d. It involves host defence mechanisms
  18. Select the drug which has been found to be a strong human teratogen:
    a. Isoniazid
    b. Isotretinoin
    c. Hydralazine
    d. Propylthiouracil
  19. Which of the following secretions is not stimulated by acetylcholine:
    a. Tear
    b. Bile
    c. Pancreatic juice
    d. Sweat
  20. Apraclonidine is a clonidine congener which is used:
    a. To suppress opioid withdrawal syndrome
    b. To suppress menopausal syndrome
    c. As Analgesic
    d. To reduce intraocular tension
  21. Which is the most important drug in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning:
    a. Atropine sulfate
    b. Pralidoxime
    c. Diazepam
    d. Adrenaline
  22. Atropine produces the following actions except:
    a. Tachycardia
    b. Mydriasis
    c. Dryness of mouth
    d. Urinary incontinence
  23. Which of the following is a noncatecholamine sympathomimetic:
    a. Adrenaline
    b. Ephedrine
    c. Dopamine
    d. Isoprenaline
  24. Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature:
    a. Potency
    b. Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier
    c. Duration of action
    d. Producing both α and β adrenergic effects
  25. For a patient of peptic ulcer, the safest nonopioid
    analgesic is:
    a. Celecoxib
    b. Diclofenac sodium
    c. Paracetamol
    d. Ibuprofen
  26. Select the first choice drug for acute gout:
    a. Cochicine
    b. Indomethacin
    c. Allopurinol
    d. Dexamethasone
  27. Codeine is used clinically as:
    a. Analgesic
    b. Antitussive
    c. Antidiarrhoeal
    d. All of the above
  28. Dextromethorphan is an:
    a. Analgesic
    b. Antitussive
    c. Expectorant
    d. Antihistaminic
  29. In patients of bronchial asthma inhaled corticosteroids achieve the following except:
    a.Reduce the need for bronchodilator medication
    b. Control an attack of refractory asthma
    c. Reduce bronchial hyperreactivity
    d. Reverse diminished responsiveness to sympathomimetic bronchodilators
  30. Gynaecomastia can be treated with:
    a. Chlorpromazine
    b. Cimetidine
    c. Bromocriptine
    d. Metoclopramide
  31. The primary route of administration of insulin is:
    a. Intradermal
    b. Subcutaneous
    c. Intramuscular
    d. Intravenous
  32. Sulfonylureas do not lower blood sugar level in:
    a. Nondiabetics
    b. Type 1 diabetics
    c. Type 2 diabetics
    d. Obese diabetics
  33. Dexamethasone differs from prednisolone in that it is:
    a. Longer acting
    b. More potent
    c. More selective
    d. All of the above
  34. The following drug can cause rickets in children by
    interfering with vitamin D action:
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Digoxin
    c. Phenytoin
    d. Ciprofloxacin
  35. Currently barbiturates are primarily used as:
    a. Hypnotic
    b. Sedative
    c. Antiepileptic
    d. Preanaesthetic medicant
  36. The following drug combination should not be used in parkinsonism:
    a. Levodopa + anticholinergics
    b. Levodopa + amantadine
    c. Bromocriptine + levodopa
    d. Amantadine + anticholinergics
  37. Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug:
    a. Clonidine
    b. Captopril
    c. Verapamil
    d. Prazosin
  38. In peptic ulcer, antacids are now primarily used for:
    a. Prompt pain relief
    b. Ulcer healing
    c. Preventing ulcer relapse
    d. Control of bleeding from the ulcer
  39. The most effective antiemetic for controlling cisplatin induced vomiting is:
    a. Prochlorperazine
    b. Ondansetron
    c. Metoclopramide
    d. Promethazine
  40. Ondansetron is effective in the following type(s) of vomiting:
    a. Cisplatin induced
    b. Radiotherapy induced
    c. Postoperative
    d. All of the above
  41. The most important mechanism of concurrent acquisition of multidrug resistance among bacteria is:
    a. Mutation
    b. Conjugation
    c. Transduction
    d. Transformation
  42. Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease:
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Cotrimoxazole
    c. Cephalexin
    d. Ethambutol
  43. The beta lactam antibiotics include the following:
    a. Cephalosporins
    b. Monobactams
    c. Carbapenems
    d. All of the above
  44. The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is:
    a. Nausea and vomiting
    b. Loose motions
    c. Constipation
    d. Urticaria
  45. Select the class of antibiotics which act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis, but are bactericidal:
    a. Tetracyclines
    b. Aminoglycosides
    c. Macrolides
    d. Lincosamides
  46. ‘Red man syndrome’ has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of the following antibiotic:
    a. Vancomycin
    b. Clindamycin
    c. Cefoperazone
    d. Piperacillin
  47. Under the WHO guidelines for treatment of new cases of tuberculosis, when isoniazid + ethambutol are used in the continuation phase instead of isoniazid + rifampin,, the duration of this phase is:
    a. 2 months
    b. 4 months
    c. 6 months
    d. 8 months
  48. In the multidrug therapy of leprosy, rifampicin is given:
    a. Daily
    b. On alternate days
    c. Weekly
    d. Monthly
  49. Albendazole is less effective than mebendazole in the following helminthic infestation:
    a. Hydatid disease
    b. Trichuriasis
    c. Strongyloidosis
    d. Ascariasis
  50. The following anthelmintic has been found to be safe during pregnancy:
    a. Thiabendazole
    b. Piperazine
    c. Albendazole
    d. Pyrantel pamoate

Note:- Option with red colour Answers 

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