MCQs of Pharmacology

Here is MCQs of Pharmacology for Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam and Pharmacy Loksewa exam. I have made the question based on the book of pharmacology which is considered to be internationally renowned

1. Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine?
A. Oxidation.
B. Reduction.
C. Glucuronidation.
D. Hydrolysis.

Ans. C

2. Which of the following types of drugs will have maximum oral bioavailability?
A. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism.
B. Highly hydrophilic drugs.
C. Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions.
D. Chemically unstable drugs.

Ans. C

3. If 10 mg of naproxen produces the same analgesic response as 100 mg of ibuprofen, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Naproxen is more efficacious than is ibuprofen.
B. Naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen.
C. Naproxen is a full agonist, and ibuprofen is a partial agonist.
D. Naproxen is a competitive antagonist.

Ans. B

4. Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease:
A. Tetracycline
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Cephalexin
D. Ethambutol

Ans. A

5. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach:
A. Morphine sulfate
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Hyoscine hydrobromide
D. Quinine dihydrochloride

Ans. B

6. The loading dose of a drug is governed by its:
A. Renal clearance
B. Plasma half life
C. Volume of distribution
D. Elimination rate constant

Ans. C

7. Which of the following drugs would be the most effective anti–motion sickness drug for a person planning to go on a cruise?
A. Atropine
B. Tropicamide
C. Scopolamine
D. Tiotropium

Ans. C

8. Which of the following drugs is commonly used topically in the treatment of glaucoma?
A. Atropine.
B. Timolol.
C. Tropicamide.
D. Scopolamine.

Ans. B

9 Which one of the following is a short-acting hypnotic and better for sleep induction compared to sleep maintenance?
A. Temazepam
B. Escitalopram
C. Zaleplon
D. Buspirone

Ans. C

10. Which of the following agents has a rapid anxiolytic effect and would be best for the acute management of anxiety?
A. Buspirone
B. Venlafaxine
C. Lorazepam
D. Escitalopram

Ans. C

11. Which antidepressant is the most sedating?
A. Fluoxetine.
B. Duloxetine.
C. Nortriptyline.
D. Citalopram.

Ans. C

12. Which antidepressant has, as its two principlemechanisms of action, 5-HT 2A receptor antagonism and a 2 receptor antagonism?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Doxepin
C. Maprotiline
D. Mirtazapine

Ans. D

13. Which is an appropriate choice for hypertension treatment during pregnancy?
A. Aliskiren.
B. Fosinopril.
C. Hydralazine.
D. Valsartan.

Ans. C

14. Which of the following adrenergic agonists is most likely to cause CNS side effects when administered systemically?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Ephedrine

Ans. D

15. Select the antimicrobial drug which is used orally only for urinary tract infection or for bacterial diarrhoeas:
A. Nalidixic acid
B. Azithromycin
C. Bacampicillin
D. Pefloxacin

Ans. A

16. Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because:
A. They produce large quantities of penicillinase
B. They do not utilise D-alanine whose incorpo-
ration in the cell wall is inhibited by benzylpenicillin
C. Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall of gram negative bacteria
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

Ans. C

17. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin:
A. Procaine penicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Cloxacillin
D. Carbenicillin

Ans. A

18. Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection:
A. Typhoid
B. Shigella enteritis
C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
D. Gonorrhoea

Ans. B

19. Choose the orally active third generation cephalo- sporin having good activity against gram positive cocci as well:
A. Cefdinir
B. Ceftazidime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Ceftizoxime

Ans. B

20. The following antibiotic penetrates blood-CSF barrier the best:
A. Erythromycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol

Ans. D

21. The following antiasthma drug is not a bronchodilator:
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Theophylline
C. Formoterol
D. Sodium cromoglycate

Ans . D

22. Select the fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator:
A. Ipratropium bromide
B. Formoterol
C. Salbutamol
D. Salmeterol

Ans. C

23. The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial action:
A. Captopril
B. Digoxin
C. Amrinone
D. Dobutamine

Ans. A

24. The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin:
A. Phenobarbitone
B. Metoclopramide
C. Quinidine
D. Magnesium hydroxide

Ans. C

25. The preferred diuretic for mobilizing edema fluid in CHF is:
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Metolazone
D. Amiloride

Ans. B

26. The following drug is used for short-term control of emergency heart failure, but not for long-term treatment of congestive heart failure:
A. Digoxin
B. Ramipril
C. Dobutamine
D. Spironolactone

Ans. C

27. Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with:
A. Amiodarone
B. Mexiletine
C. Sotalol
D. Procainamide

Ans. A

28. Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except:
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous

Ans. C

29. A 50-year-old migrant worker comes to the emergency department from the field he was working in and complains of diarrhea, tearing, nausea and vomiting, and sweating. The clinician notices that he looks generally anxious and has fine fasciculations in the muscles of the upper chest as well as pinpoint pupils. Which antidote should he receive first?
A. N-acetylcysteine.
B. Sodium nitrite.
C. Deferoxamine.
D. Atropine.

Ans. D

30. A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. Which of the following agents is indicated for use in this diagnosis?
A. Valacyclovir.
B. Cidofovir.
C. Ganciclovir.
D. Lamivudine.

Ans. A

31. Which of the following antifungal agents is MOST likely to cause renal insufficiency?
A. Fluconazole.
B. Amphotericin B.
C. Itraconazole.
D. Posaconazole

Ans. B

32. A 42-year-old male HIV patient was recently diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Currently, he is on a stable HIV regimen consisting of two protease inhibitors and two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). What is the most appropriate regimen to use for treatment of his tuberculosis?
A. Rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol.
B. Rifabutin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol.
C. Rifapentine + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol.
D. Amikacin + moxifloxacin + cycloserine + streptomycin.

Ans. B

33. Which of the following cytochrome isoforms is responsible for metabolizing the largest number of drugs?
A. CYP1A2
B. CYP3A4
C. CYP2C19
D. CYP2D6

Ans. B

34. Which of the following drugs has higher first-pass metabolism in men than in women?
A. Cimetidine
B. Ethanol
C. Ketoconazole
D. Verapamil

Ans. B

35. Which one of the following drugs is associated with clinically useful or physiologically important positive inotropic effect?
A. Captopril
B. Dobutamine
C. Enalapril
D. Losartan

Ans. B

36. Peripheral adverse effects of levodopa, including nausea, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmias, can be diminished by including which of the following drugs in the therapy?
A. Amantadine
B. Ropinirole
C. Carbidopa
D. Pramipexole

Ans. C

37. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding benzodiazepines?
A. Benzodiazepines directly open chloride channels.
B. Benzodiazepines, like other CNS depressants, readily produce general anesthesia.
C. Clinical improvement of anxiety requires 2 to 4 weeks of treatment with benzodiazepines.
D. All benzodiazepines have some sedative effects.

Ans. D

38. Which one of the following is a short-acting hypnotic?
A. Phenobarbital.
B. Diazepam.
C. Chlordiazepoxide.
D. Triazolam.

Ans. D

39. A 51-year-old woman with symptoms of major depression also has angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following antidepressants should be avoided in this patient?
A. Amitriptyline.
B. Sertraline.
C. Bupropion.
D. Mirtazapine.

Ans. A

40. Which of the following types of drugs will have maximum oral bioavailability?
A. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism.
B. Highly hydrophilic drugs.
C. Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions.
D. Chemically unstable drugs.

Ans. C

41. Which of the following is true about the blood brain barrier?
A. Endothelial cells of the blood–brain barrier have slit junctions.
B. Ionized or polar drugs can cross the blood–brain barrier easily.
C. Drugs cannot cross the blood–brain barrier through specific transporters.
D. Lipid-soluble drugs readily cross the blood brain barrier.

Ans. D

42. Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine?
A. Oxidation.
B. Reduction.
C. Glucuronidation.
D. Hydrolysis.

Ans. C

43. If 10 mg of morphine produces a greater analgesic response than can be achieved by ibuprofen at any dose, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Morphine is less efficacious than is ibuprofen.
B. Morphine is less potent than is ibuprofen.
C. Ibuprofen is a competitive antagonist.
D. Morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen.

Ans. D

44. In the presence of naloxone, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Naloxone by itself has no effect. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?
A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist.
B. Morphine is a full agonist, and naloxone is a partial agonist.
C. Morphine is less efficacious than is naloxone.
D. Morphine is less potent than is naloxone.

Ans. A

45. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?
A. Iodide.
B. Levothyroxine.
C. Liothyronine.
D. Propylthiouracil.

Ans. B

46. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial oral agent for management of type 2 diabetes in patients with no other comorbid conditions?
A. Glipizide.
B. Insulin.
C. Metformin.
D. Pioglitazone.

Ans. C

47. A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be a poor choice for controlling her diabetes?
A. Exenatide.
B. Glyburide.
C. Sitagliptin.
D. Pioglitazone.

Ans. D

48. Which of the following drugs for diabetes would be least likely to cause weight gain?
A. Glimepiride.
B. Liraglutide.
C. Pioglitazone.
D. Repaglinide.

Ans. B

49. A 26-year-old female is using injectable medroxyprogesterone acetate as a method of contraception.Which of the following adverse effects is a concern if shewishes to use this therapy long-term?
A. Hyperkalemia.
B. Male pattern baldness.
C. Osteoporosis.
D. Weight loss.

Ans. C

50. Corticosteroids are useful in the treatment of all of the following disorders except:
A. Addison disease.
B. Rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Cushing syndrome.
D. Inflammatory bowel disease.

Ans. C