Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Pharmacology Questions BPharmacy

Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Pharmacology Questions for BPharmacy

1. Type B adverse drug reaction is ?
(a) Augmented effect of the drug
(b) Allergic effect of the drug
(c) Effect seen on chronic use of the drug
(d) Delayed effect of the drug

2. All of the following drugs can cause SLE like syndrome except ?
(a) Isoniazid
(b) Penicillin
(c) Hydralazine
(d) Sulphonamide

3. All of the following antiepileptics are microsomal enzyme inducers except
(a) Valproate
(b) Phenobarbitone
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Rifampicin

4. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?
(a) Enalapril
(b) Amlodipine
(c) ß-blockers
(d) Propylthiouracil

5. Two drugs having opposite action on different receptors is which type of antagonism?
(a) Physical antagonism
(b) Competitive antagonism
(c) Non competitive antagonism
(d) Physiological antagonism

6. Increase in cAMP is caused by:
(a) Somatostatin
(b) ß (Beta) receptor
(c) a (Alpha) receptor
(d) Acetylcholine

7. Apparent volume of distribution (aVd) is more than total body fluid if drug is:
(a) Poorly soluble
(b) Sequestered in tissues
(c) Slow elimination
(d) Poorly plasma protein bound

8. Most essential medicines should be formulated as:
(a) No compound
(b) Single compound
(c) Multiple compounds
(d) Fixed dose combinations

9. Drug which does not cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency is?
(a) Primaquine
(b) Dapsone
(c) Corticosteroids
(d) Methylene Blue

10. Phase 4 clinical trial also called as?
(a) Human pharmacology and safety
(b) Post marketing surveillance
(c) Therapeutic exploration and dose ranging
(d) Therapeutic confirmation

11. Which of the following is an effect of grapefruit juice on drug metabolism?
(a) Enzyme inducer
(b) Enzyme inhibitor
(c) Inhibits tubular secretion
(d) Inhibits tubular reabsorption

12. Which of the following is an example of physiological antagonism?
(a) Heparin-Protamine
(b) Prostacycline-Thromboxane
(c) Adrenaline-Phenoxybenzamine
(d) Physostigmine-Acetylcholine

13. Which is not an alkaloid?
(a) Morphine
(b) Neostigmine
(c) Emetine
(d) Atropine

14. Therapeutic index is a measure of:
(a) Efficacy
(b) Adverse effects
(c) Safety
(d) Potency

15. Which of the following doesnot included in Pharmacokinetic Parameter:
(a) Absorption
(b) Distribution
(c) Biotransformation
(d) Drug Action

16. All the following drugs are teratogenic except:
(a) Alcohol
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Warfarin
(d) Metoclopramide

17. All the following drugs act on ionic channels except:
(a) Nicotine
(b) Insulin
(c) Glibenclamide
(d) Diazepam

18. Efficacy of a drug refers to:
(a) Affinity of drug to bind to receptors
(b) Affinity of drug that binds to receptors and activates it
(c) Dose that requires to produce response
(d) Maximum response a drug can produce

19. Phocomelia is best described as:
(a) Defect in development of long bones
(b) Defect in development of flat bones
(c) Defect in intramembranous ossification
(d) Defect in cartilge replacement by bones

20. Phase IV of clinical trials collect information specially about:
(a) Drug efficacy
(b) Drug potency
(c) Drug toxicity
(d) Pharmacokinetics of the drug

21. SLE like reaction is caused by:
(a) Hydralazine
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Furosemide

22. Which of the following can result in oral contraceptive failure?
(a) Valproate
(b) Rifampicin
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Ethambutol

23. When a drug binds to the receptor and causes action opposite to that of agonist this is called as?
(a) Complete Agonist
(b) Partial Agonist
(c) Inverse agonist
(d) Neutral antagonist

24. The study of how variation in the human genome affect the response to medications is known as?
(a) Pharmacogenomics
(b) Pharmacokinetics
(c) Pharmacotherapeutics
(d) Pharmacovigilance

25. Zero order kinetics occur in following drug with high dose:
(a) Phenytoin and propranolol
(b) Digoxin and propranolol
(c) Amiloride and prebenecid
(d) Alcohol and theophylline

26. Which of the following is the most accurate method for calculating drug dosage in children:
(a) Weight of the child
(b) Weight of the child and adult dose
(c) Age of the child
(d) Body surface area

27. Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for all the following except:
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Metformin
(c) Tacrolimus
(d) Cyclosporin

28. The drug which may inhibit P450 for warfarin is which one of the following:
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Ethanol
(c) Rifampicin
(d) Procainamide

29. In which type of poisonings is gastric lavage contraindicated?
(a) organophosphorus poisoning
(b) Sedative drug poisoning
(c) Corrosive acid poisoning
(d) Barium carbonate poisoning

30. All of the following are examples of time dependent late adverse drug reactions except:
(a) Glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis
(b) Nitrate induced headache
(c) Chloroquine induced retinopathy
(d) Amiodarone induced tissue phospholipid deposition

31. Phase 4 clinical trial is carried out:
(a) Before the marketing approval of a drug
(b) After a drug is marketed
(c) For drugs used in rare diseases
(d) For drugs used in pediatric patients

32. Forced alkaline diuresis is effective in management of poisoning by which of the following agents:
(a) Phenobarbitone
(b) Lead
(c) Iron
(d) organophosphates

33. Which of the following drugs can be given safety in pregnancy:
(a) Propylthiouracil
(b) Sodium valproate
(c) Warfarin
(d) Tetracycline

34. Which ONE of the following is TRUE about a competitive antagonism?
(a) Antagonism cannot be completely reversed by increased dose of the agonist
(b) An agonist cannot displace an antagonists from the receptor
(c) Agonists and antagonists bind to the same receptor
(d) Dose-response curve of an agonists shifts to the left in the presence of an antagonist

35. Which route of drug administration avoids first pass hepatic metabolism and is used with drug preparation that slowly releases drugs for periods as long as seven days?
(a) Topical
(b) Transdermal
(c) Sublingual
(d) oral

36. Essential medicines are those medicines:
(a) That are needed to treat emergency conditions
(b) That are needed to treat serious diseases
(c) That satisfy the priority health care needs of the population
(d) That are introduced recently into the market

37. A drug that compete for active binding site is called:
(a) Competitive inhibitor
(b) Non-competitive inhibitor
(c) Covalent inhibitor
(d) Any of these

38. Usually healthy human volunteers are taken in:
(a) Phase I of clinical trial
(b) Phase II of clinical trial
(c) Phase III of clinical trial
(d) Phase IV of clinical trial

39. Orphan drugs are:
(a) Drugs with high therapeutic failure
(b) Drugs with high toxicity
(c) Drugs having low therapeutic margin
(d) Drugs for rare disease

40. Hemodialysis is useful in all of the following except:
(a) Barbiturate poisoning
(b) Methanol poisoning
(c) Salicylate poisoning
(d) Digoxin poisoning

41. Elimination after 3 half lives in first order kinetics
(a) 12.5%
(b) 75%
(c) 87.5%
(d) 94%

42. Drug remaining in the body after 3 half lives is:
(a) 12.5%
(b) 75%
(c) 87.5%
(d) 94%

43. The bioavailability of the drug depends upon:
(a) First pass metabolism
(b) Second pass metabolism
(c) Volume of distribution
(d) Excretion

44. Bioavailability is:
(a) Amount of drug that reach the systemic circulation
(b) Drug metabolized in liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation
(c) Drug metabolized in liver after the drug reaches the systemic circulation
(d) Maximum by rectal route

45. Therapeutic index is a measure of:
(a) Drug safety
(b) Bioavailability
(c) Potency
(d) Efficacy

46. Partial agonist possess
(a) Max. intrinsic activity and low affinity
(b) High intrinsic activity and no affinity
(c) Low intrinsic activity and high affinity
(d) Low intrinsic activity and low affinity

47. About biotransformation untrue is:
(a) Inactive metabolites are formed
(b) Active metabolites are formed
(c) More fat soluble metabolites are formed
(d) More H2O soluble metabolites are formed

48. Which of the following is not a pro-drug?
(a) Levodopa
(b) Enalapril
(c) Dipivefrine
(d) Amoxicillin

49. Which of the following is a prodrug?
(a) Lisinopril
(b) Enalapril
(c) Chlorpromazine
(d) Dopamine

50. Pharmacodynamics includes:
(a) Drug elimination
(b) Drug excretion
(c) Drug absorption
(d) Mechanism of action

Answers

1. b	2. b	3. a	4. a	5.d
6. b	7. b	8. b	9. c	10. b
11. b	12. b	13. b	14. c	15. d
16. d	17. b	18. d	19. a	20. c
21. a	22. b	23. c	24. a	25. d
26.d	27. b	28. a	29. a	30. b
31. b	32. a	33. a	34. c	35. b
36. c	37. a	38. a	39. d	40. d
41. c	42. a	43. a	44. a	45. a
46.c	47. c	48. d	49. b	50. d