General Pharmacology Important MCQs

General Pharmacology Important MCQs for various types of pharmacy compitative exams.

1. Pharmacodynamics includes:
(a) Drug elimination
(b) Drug excretion
(c) Drug absorption
(d) Mechanism of action
Ans. d

2. Which of the following is not a pro-drug?
(a) Levodopa
(b) Enalapril
(c) Dipivefrine
(d) Amoxicillin
Ans. d

3. Bioavailability is:
(a) Amount of drug that reach the systemic circulation
(b) Drug metabolized in liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation
(c) Drug metabolized in liver after the drug reaches the systemic circulation
(d) Maximum by rectal route
Ans. a

4. Usually healthy human volunteers are taken in:
(a) Phase I of clinical trial
(b) Phase II of clinical trial
(c) Phase III of clinical trial
(d) Phase IV of clinical trial
Ans. a

5. The drug which may inhibit P450 for warfarin is which one of the following:
(a) Cimetidine
(b) Ethanol
(c) Rifampicin
(d) Procainamide
Ans. a

6. All the following drugs are teratogenic except:
(a) Alcohol
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Warfarin
(d) Metoclopramide
Ans. d

7. SLE like reaction is caused by:
(a) Hydralazine
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Furosemide
Ans. a

8. Which of the following is excreted in saliva?
(a) Tetracyclines
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Lithium
(d) Chloramphenicol
Ans. c

9. A newborn baby was born with phocomelia. It results due to which drug taken by mother during pregnancy?
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Thalidomide
(c) Warfarin
(d) Alcohol
Ans. b

10. Receptor mediated action is not seen in:
(a) Alcohol
(b) Antipsychotic
(c) Antacids
(d) Benzodiazepines
Ans. c

11. Blood brain barrier is crossed by:
(a) Dopamine
(b) Propanolol
(c) Glycopyrrolate
(d) Physostigmine
Ans. b

12. ED50 is used for determining:
(a) Potency
(b) Efficacy
(c) Safety
(d) Toxicity
Ans. a

13. Good clinical practice (GCP) is not required in:
(a) Preclinical phase
(b) Phase I trial
(c) Phase II studies
(d) Phase IV studies
Ans. a

14. Plasma drug monitoring is done for:
(a) Drug with high safety margin
(b) Drug with low safety margin
(c) Drug with high therapeutic index
(d) None
Ans. b

15. G-coupled protein receptor is:
(a) Metabotropic receptors
(b) Ionic receptors
(c) Kinase-linked receptors
(d) Nuclear receptors
Ans. a

16. Which of the following does not act as second messenger?
(a) Cyclic AMP
(b) Inositol trisphosphate
(c) Diacylglycerol
(d) G proteins
Ans. d

17. Physiological antagonism is found in:
(a) Isoprenaline and salbutamol
(b) Isoprenaline and adrenaline
(c) Isoprenaline and propanolol
(d) Adrenaline and histamine
Ans. d

18. At toxic doses, zero order kinetics is seen in:
(a) Penicillin
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Valproate
(d) Carbamazepine
Ans. b

19. Which of the following drugs is having the least oral bioavailability?
(a) d-tubocurarine
(b) Morphine
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Phenytoin
Ans. a

20. Which of the following parameters signifies the effective drug removal from the body?
(a) Clearance
(b) Bioavailability
(c) Safety
(d) Volume of distribution
Ans. a

21. Which of the following is a Phase I metabolic reaction?
(a) Hydroxylation
(b) Conjugation
(c) Glucuronidation
(d) Sulfation
Ans. a

22. Which of the following drugs do not produce active metabolites?
(a) Enalapril
(b) Lisinopril
(c) Prednisone
(d) Sulfasalazine
Ans. b

23. Which of the following drugs has maximum chances of absorption from gastric mucosa?
(a) Morphine sulfate
(b) Diclofenac sodium
(c) Hyoscine hydrobromide
(d) Quinine dihydrochloride
Ans. b

24. Major mechanism of transport of drugs across biological membranes is by:
(a) Passive diffusion
(b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Active transport
(d) Endocytosis
Ans. a

25. Which of the following drugs should be removed by dialysis?
(a) Digoxin
(b) Salicylates
(c) Benzodiazepines
(d) organophosphates
Ans. b

26. Which one of the following drugs does not undergo hepatic first pass effect?
(a) Propanolol
(b) Lidocaine
(c) Insulin
(d) Morphine
Ans. d

27. When a drug binds to the receptor and causes action opposite to that of agonist this is called as?
(a) Complete Agonist
(b) Partial Agonist
(c) Inverse agonist
(d) Neutral antagonist
Ans. c

28. Partial agonist possess
(a) Max. intrinsic activity and low affinity
(b) High intrinsic activity and no affinity
(c) Low intrinsic activity and high affinity
(d) Low intrinsic activity and low affinity
Ans. c

29. Which of the following is an effect of grapefruit juice on drug metabolism?
(a) Enzyme inducer
(b) Enzyme inhibitor
(c) Inhibits tubular secretion
(d) Inhibits tubular reabsorption
Ans. b

30. There are some undesirable but unavoidable pharmacodynamic effects of a drug, which are known as:
(a) Toxic effects
(b) Idiosyncrasy
(c) Side effects
(d) Intolerance
Ans. c