Nepal Nursing Council License Exam Questions Based on the Syllabus of Nepal Nursing Council License Exam.
1.How many bones are there in human vertebra?
2.Which of the following chamber of heart pumps oxygenated blood towards the aorta ?
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle
3.The normal WBC count is……..
d. 4.5-6.5 *106
4.The process of blood cells formation is called……..
5. The normal intake of water per day is………
6. Which type of drug is mebendazote?
7. The safest route for injection is……..
8. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in eyes?
a. 5-10 mm of HG
b. 10-15 mm of HG
c. 15-20 mm of HG
d. 20-25 mm of HG
9. The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is…….
10.The beta cell of islets of langerhans secrets………hormone.
11. A patient is schedule for a urinary catheterization, in which position should the nurse place the patient…….
a . Dorsal recumbent position
b. Trendelen burg position
c. Supine position
d. Prone position
12. Tachycardia means pulse rate……….
a. Below 60
b. Above 100
c. Below 100
d. Above 60
13. A patient is scheduled for NG feeding. In which position should he nurse place the patient……..
a. Low fowlers position
b. Supine position
d. Side lying position
14. The fastest route to give medicine is………
b. IM( intramuscular)
c. ID (intradermal)
d. SC ( subcutaneous)
15. Nosocomial infection is the infection acquired by………
a. Infected person
d. None of the above
16. Nepal nursing council was established in……
a. 1996 BS
c. 1954 BS
17. A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride. With respect to human blood call, to which category of fluid does this solution belongs?
18. A patient is to have gastric gavages. In which position should the nurse place the client when the gavages tube is being inserted…………
a. Supine position
b. Mid fowlers position
c. High-fowlers position
d. Trendelelenberg position
19. Which electrolyte of intracellular fluid is the most important?
a. Sodium chloride
20. Sterile urine specimen is collected from…………
a. From clean bedpan or urinal
b. The first small amount of urine voided
c. Urine voided at midstream
d. All of the above
21.A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would….
a. Remove pillow from under the head
b. Elevate the head of the body
c. Elevate the foot of the body
d. Take the blood pressure
22. A patient has an abnormal, unexpected response to a drug this is defined as…….
a .Drug tolerance
b. Idiosyncratic effect
c. A cumulative effect
23. You are to administer a medication using a nasogastric tube. Before giving medicine, you should…….
a. Crush the enteric coated pill for mixing in a liquid
b. Flush open the tube with 60ml of very warm water
c. Check for proper placement of NG tube
d. Take the patient’s vital sign
24. Vitamin K, 10mg given IM, is ordered vitamin K is available as 5mg/ml. how much would the nurse administers?
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. 4 ml
25.While administering a blood transfusion, when would the nurse asses the patient for a blood transfusion reaction?
a. 15 minutes after the infusion is started
b. After the blood is all infused
c. Every hour
d. Every 15 minutes
26. When assessing a patient at risk for pressure ulcer formation, which site would the nurse identify as being most common?
a. Occipital area
27. A patient is receiving 100ml of IV fluid per 24 hours. Using on IV set with drop rate of 15 drops/ml the nurse should plan to regulate the IV is………
a. 10 drops/min
b. 15 drops/min
c. 20 drops/min
d. 30 drops/min
28. The identification of clients health needs occurs in nursing process step of………..
29. Oxygen, Food and water are which of the following need according to Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs……
a. Physiological needs
b.Love and belonging
c.Safety and security need
30. When you find a person lying on the ground with a cardiopulmonary arrest, what will be the immediate action to be taken?
a. Assess responsiveness
b. Assess circulation
c. Assess the airway
d. Assess breathing
31. ICN (international council of nurses) was established in………
a. 1899 A.D
b. 1888 A.D
c. 1898 A.D
d. 1889 A.D
32. NLEN (national licensure examination for nurses) is conducted by………
33. If heart is transferred from one object to another by direct contact, if is……
34. When the elevated temperature fluctuates wildly but does not reach normal levels between fluctuation is called………
a. Constant fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Intermittent fever
d. Relapsing fever
35. Type of abnormal breathing which is the combination of hyperpnoea and apnoea………
c. Chyne stroke breathing
36. A client has temperature 104°F. This temperature is equal to……………
37. A patient is receiving blood transfusion, if an allergic reaction to the blood develops on patient, the nurse’s first intervention should be…….
a. Call the physician
b. Slow the flow rate of blood
c. Stop the blood immediately
d. Administer anti allergic drug
38. Which is the unfavorable factor affecting wound healing?
a. Young age
b. Intake of protein, calcium, vitamin C
d. Abundant blood supply to the injured part
39. For safe administration of drugs, the nurse should follow right …
a. 4 right
b. 5 rights
c. 6 rights
d. 1 rights
40. The muscle of upper arm for administering intramuscular injection is………
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus minimus
c. Deltoid muscle
d. Vastus laterails
41. The process which makes inanimate objects safer to be handled by health personnel before cleaning is………….
c. High level disinfection
42. Recommended temperature, time pressure for autoclaving (steam under pressure)
a. 120°C (250°f), at 106kpa (15 Ibs/in 2)for 30 minutes
b. 110°c at 106 kpa (15ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes
c. 100°C at 106 kpa (15ibs/in2) for 30 minutes
d. 90°C 106 kpa (15ibs/in2) for 30 minutes
43. If nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client enema to a client with a fecal impaction. Before administering the enema the nurse places the client in which position?
a. Left sim’s positions
b. Right sim’s position
c. On the left side of the body, with the head of the bed elevated
at 45 degree
44. Who will be third line manager for you at PHC?
b. Medical superintendent
c. Medical officer
d. Chief of T/OH
45. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in an adult client. To determine the measurements of the length of the tube to be inserted, the nurse should………..
a. Mark the tube at 10 inches
b. Mark the tube at 32 inches
c. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measures by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process
d. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube earlobe and then down to the sternum
46. Physician prescribed a hypotonic solution (IV) for a client. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse except to prescribe………
a. 5% dextrose is water
b. 10% dextrose in water
c. 0.45% sodium chloride
d. 0.9% sodium chloride
47. The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse asses which of the following items?
a. Vital sign
b. Skin color
c. Urine output
d. latest hematocrit level
48. Best type of solution to use for the irrigation of urinary catheter…
a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Tap water
d. Warm water
49. The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is………….
a. Wearing gloves
b. Wearing mask
c. Hand washing
d. Wearing mask
50. Which instrument is used to test the client’s hearing?
b. Tuning fork
d. Reflex hammers
51. When is international nurse’s day celebrated?
a. 12th may
b. 12th march
c. 2nd may
d. 31st July
52. A nurse is preparing a preoperative client for transfer to the operating room. The nurse should take which action in the care of this client at this time?
a. Ensure that the client has voided
b. Administer all the daily medications
c. Practice postoperative breathing exercises
d. Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours
53. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment the nurse performs which assessment at first…..
54. While giving a intradermal injection the needle should be held at ……
55. Appropriate temperature of solution prepared for sitz-bath should be………
a. 105-110° F
56. The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should immediately be taken next………
a. Remove IV line
b. Run normal saline at a keeps vein often rate
c. Run a solution of 5% dextrose is water
d. Obtain a culture of the tip of catheter device removed from the client
57. When suctioning an unconscious client, which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize in maintaining cerebral perfusion….
a. Administers diuretics
b. Provide hygiene
c .Administer analgesics
d. Hyper oxygenate before
58. Savlon is……..
d. a and b
59. Scald is a burn caused by……….
a. Dry heat
c. Moist heat
60. When you perform CPR on an unresponsive adult, you should correctly asses the pulse of which location?
a. Over the radial artery
b. Over the brachial artery
c. Over the carotid artery
d. Over the temporal artery
61. Which of the following would the nurse use as the most reliable indicator of a patient’s fluid balance status?
a. Intake and output
b. Complete blood count
c. Skin turgor
d. Daily weight
62. Health policy formation in Nepal since……
a. 1991 AD
c. 1995 AD
63. Trachoma is a disease of………….
a. Eye lid
d. Lachrymal gland
64. Kopilk’s spot is the clinical feature of……….
c. Chicken pox
65. BCG vaccine is against………..
d. Whooping cough
66. DOTS stand for………….
a. Directly observed treatment short course
b. Direct observed treatment short course
c. Direct observed treatment system
d. Directly observed treatment system
67. The vector for malaria is………….
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malaria
c. Plasmodium falciparium
d. female anopheles mosquito
68. HIV/AIDS is caused by a………….
a. Retro virus
b. Rhabdo virus
c .Rota virus
d. pox virus
69. Which of the following is waterborne disease?
c. Hepatitis A
70. Kala-azar is caused by…………vector.
b. Sand fly
71. Syphilis is caused by………….
a. Salmonella Typhi
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Treponema palladium
72. What type of vaccination is given against measles?
a. Live attenuated
73. Which of the following is principle of primary health care?
a. Health education
b. Mental health
c. Dental health
d. Community participation
74. Oral contraceptives act by……………
a. Preventing ovulation
b. Making endometrial non-reactive to embryo
c. Making inactive to sperm
d. Inhibiting sperm penetration to the ovum
75. The ages of child to receive DPT vaccine are………….
b. 6week, 7 week, 8 week
c. 6 week,7week,8week
d. 1 week, 2 week,3week
76. When was the ALMA ata conference held?
77. Which of the following comes under STDS disease?
78. When oral contraceptives are prescribed for a patient, the nurse should teach the client about the potential of developing……….
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Fibrocystic disease
d. Break through bleeding
79. Which of the following are not the 6 killer diseases?
80. When emergency contraceptive should be taken after the unprotect sexual intercourse?
a. Within 24 hrs
b. Within 48hrs
c. Within 36 hrs
d. Within 72 hrs
81. What is the best method of solid waste disposal?
82. Which of the following permanent family planning method requires contraceptives at least for 20 ejaculation surgery?
83. The comprehensive assessment of the health status of an entire community is called……….
a. Community diagnosis
b. Home visit
d. Health education
84. Which type of approach is used in home visit?
a. Individual approach
b. Mass approach
c. Group approach
d. Media approach
85. Which of following contraceptives is excluded in the outreach clinic?
a. Oral pills
b. ORS packet
86. The cases occurs irregular haphazardly form time to time and generally infrequently is…………
87. The most commonly accepted family planning method in Nepal is………….
a. Oral pills
88. In triangle, which color code should be given the first priority?
a . Red color
b. green color
c. yellow color
d. black color
89. Which one of the following planning method?
c. Coitus interrupts
90. Incubation period of influenza is…………
d. 1 week
91. When teaching a client about the post coital test to evaluate fertility, the nurse should tell the client that the time for the test is…………
a.1 week after ovulation
b. Immediately after menses
c. Just before the next menstrual period
d. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation
92. The most appropriate toy for a 3 year old child is………….
a. Large balls
b. A farm set
c. A golf set
93. Which of the following individual are at the great risk for development of on integumentary disorder?
a. An adolescent
b. An older female
c. A physical education teacher
d. An outdoor construction worker
94. The patient is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effects to be expected is………..
c. Sore throat
95. The pacemaker is used in some patient to make the normal function of…….
a. Av node
b. SA node
c. Bundle of his
d. Accelerator nerve to the heart
96. The nurse should position a client recovering from general anesthesia in…..
a. Supine position
b. Side lying position
c. High flower’s position
d. trendelen burg position
97. Pulmonary edema is associated with…………..
a. Right sided heart failure
b. Left sided heart failure
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Ventricular fibrillation
98. The person taking iron usually passes……….
a. Clay-colored stool
b. Quite black stool
c. Normal stool
d. light green
99. After the ovulation ovum remain alive for………
100. To limit painful attack, which food should the nurse teach a client with gut to avoid?