Nepal Nursing Council License Exam Questions

Nepal Nursing Council License Exam Questions Based on the Syllabus of Nepal Nursing Council License Exam.

1.How many bones are there in human vertebra?
a. 25
b. 64
c. 33
d. 80

2.Which of the following chamber of heart pumps oxygenated blood towards the aorta ?
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle

3.The normal WBC count is……..
a. 4000-11000
b. 400000-900000
c. 150000-400000
d. 4.5-6.5 *106

4.The process of blood cells formation is called……..
a. Thrombocytosis
b. Leucoccytosis
c. Erythropoesis
d. Hemolysis

5. The normal intake of water per day is………
a. 1000ml
b. 2000ml
c. 1500ml
d. 2500ml

6. Which type of drug is mebendazote?
a. Antifungal
b. Antihelminitic
c. Antibactericidal
d. Antiviral

7. The safest route for injection is……..
a. Intravenous
b. intraperitoneal
c. intrapleural
d. intracardinal

8. What is the pressure of vitreous humor in eyes?
a. 5-10 mm of HG
b. 10-15 mm of HG
c. 15-20 mm of HG
d. 20-25 mm of HG

9. The most important electrolyte of intracellular fluid is…….
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride

10.The beta cell of islets of langerhans secrets………hormone.
a. Glucagon
b. glycogen
c. insulin
d. amylase

11. A patient is schedule for a urinary catheterization, in which position should the nurse place the patient…….
a . Dorsal recumbent position
b. Trendelen burg position
c. Supine position
d. Prone position

12. Tachycardia means pulse rate……….
a. Below 60
b. Above 100
c. Below 100
d. Above 60

13. A patient is scheduled for NG feeding. In which position should he nurse place the patient……..
a. Low fowlers position
b. Supine position
c. Trendeleburg
d. Side lying position

14. The fastest route to give medicine is………
a. IV(intravenous)
b. IM( intramuscular)
c. ID (intradermal)
d. SC ( subcutaneous)

15. Nosocomial infection is the infection acquired by………
a. Infected person
b. Hospital
c. Community
d. None of the above

16. Nepal nursing council was established in……
a. 1996 BS
b. 2053BS
c. 1954 BS
d. 2054BS

17. A nurse administers an intravenous solution of 0.45 sodium chloride. With respect to human blood call, to which category of fluid does this solution belongs?
a. Isotonic
b. hypotonic
c. isometric
d. hypertonic

18. A patient is to have gastric gavages. In which position should the nurse place the client when the gavages tube is being inserted…………
a. Supine position
b. Mid fowlers position
c. High-fowlers position
d. Trendelelenberg position

19. Which electrolyte of intracellular fluid is the most important?
a. Sodium chloride
b. Chloride
c. Calcium
d. Potassium

20. Sterile urine specimen is collected from…………
a. From clean bedpan or urinal
b. The first small amount of urine voided
c. Urine voided at midstream
d. All of the above

21.A patient is having dyspnea. To facilitate respiration, the nurse would….
a. Remove pillow from under the head
b. Elevate the head of the body
c. Elevate the foot of the body
d. Take the blood pressure

22. A patient has an abnormal, unexpected response to a drug this is defined as…….
a .Drug tolerance
b. Idiosyncratic effect
c. A cumulative effect
d. Anaphylactic

23. You are to administer a medication using a nasogastric tube. Before giving medicine, you should…….
a. Crush the enteric coated pill for mixing in a liquid
b. Flush open the tube with 60ml of very warm water
c. Check for proper placement of NG tube
d. Take the patient’s vital sign

24. Vitamin K, 10mg given IM, is ordered vitamin K is available as 5mg/ml. how much would the nurse administers?
a.1 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. 4 ml

25.While administering a blood transfusion, when would the nurse asses the patient for a blood transfusion reaction?
a. 15 minutes after the infusion is started
b. After the blood is all infused
c. Every hour
d. Every 15 minutes

26. When assessing a patient at risk for pressure ulcer formation, which site would the nurse identify as being most common?
a. Occipital area
b. Sacrum
c. Sternum
d. Humerus

27. A patient is receiving 100ml of IV fluid per 24 hours. Using on IV set with drop rate of 15 drops/ml the nurse should plan to regulate the IV is………
a. 10 drops/min
b. 15 drops/min
c. 20 drops/min
d. 30 drops/min

28. The identification of clients health needs occurs in nursing process step of………..
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Assessment
d. Implementation

29. Oxygen, Food and water are which of the following need according to Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs……
a. Physiological needs
b.Love and belonging
c.Safety and security need
d.Self esteem

30. When you find a person lying on the ground with a cardiopulmonary arrest, what will be the immediate action to be taken?
a. Assess responsiveness
b. Assess circulation
c. Assess the airway
d. Assess breathing

31. ICN (international council of nurses) was established in………
a. 1899 A.D
b. 1888 A.D
c. 1898 A.D
d. 1889 A.D

32. NLEN (national licensure examination for nurses) is conducted by………
a. NNC
b. ICN
c. NAN
d. INC

33. If heart is transferred from one object to another by direct contact, if is……
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Evaporation
d. Radiation

34. When the elevated temperature fluctuates wildly but does not reach normal levels between fluctuation is called………
a. Constant fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Intermittent fever
d. Relapsing fever

35. Type of abnormal breathing which is the combination of hyperpnoea and apnoea………
a. Dyspnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Chyne stroke breathing
d. Asphyxia

36. A client has temperature 104°F. This temperature is equal to……………
a. 38°C
b. 40°C
c. 41°C
d. 42°C

37. A patient is receiving blood transfusion, if an allergic reaction to the blood develops on patient, the nurse’s first intervention should be…….
a. Call the physician
b. Slow the flow rate of blood
c. Stop the blood immediately
d. Administer anti allergic drug

38. Which is the unfavorable factor affecting wound healing?
a. Young age
b. Intake of protein, calcium, vitamin C
c. Hemorrhage
d. Abundant blood supply to the injured part

39. For safe administration of drugs, the nurse should follow right …
a. 4 right
b. 5 rights
c. 6 rights
d. 1 rights

40. The muscle of upper arm for administering intramuscular injection is………
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus minimus
c. Deltoid muscle
d. Vastus laterails

41. The process which makes inanimate objects safer to be handled by health personnel before cleaning is………….
a. Sterilization
b. decontamination
c. High level disinfection
d. Cleaning

42. Recommended temperature, time pressure for autoclaving (steam under pressure)
a. 120°C (250°f), at 106kpa (15 Ibs/in 2)for 30 minutes
b. 110°c at 106 kpa (15ibs/in 2) for 30 minutes
c. 100°C at 106 kpa (15ibs/in2) for 30 minutes
d. 90°C 106 kpa (15ibs/in2) for 30 minutes

43. If nurse is administering a cleansing enema to a client enema to a client with a fecal impaction. Before administering the enema the nurse places the client in which position?
a. Left sim’s positions
b. Right sim’s position
c. On the left side of the body, with the head of the bed elevated
at 45 degree
d. None

44. Who will be third line manager for you at PHC?
a. Self
b. Medical superintendent
c. Medical officer
d. Chief of T/OH

45. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in an adult client. To determine the measurements of the length of the tube to be inserted, the nurse should………..
a. Mark the tube at 10 inches
b. Mark the tube at 32 inches
c. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measures by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process
d. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extending the tube earlobe and then down to the sternum

46. Physician prescribed a hypotonic solution (IV) for a client. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse except to prescribe………
a. 5% dextrose is water
b. 10% dextrose in water
c. 0.45% sodium chloride
d. 0.9% sodium chloride

47. The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse asses which of the following items?
a. Vital sign
b. Skin color
c. Urine output
d. latest hematocrit level

48. Best type of solution to use for the irrigation of urinary catheter…
a. Distilled water
b. Normal saline
c. Tap water
d. Warm water

49. The most important way to prevent the spread of infection is………….
a. Wearing gloves
b. Wearing mask
c. Hand washing
d. Wearing mask

50. Which instrument is used to test the client’s hearing?
a. Stethoscope
b. Tuning fork
c. Otoscope
d. Reflex hammers

51. When is international nurse’s day celebrated?
a. 12th may
b. 12th march
c. 2nd may
d. 31st July

52. A nurse is preparing a preoperative client for transfer to the operating room. The nurse should take which action in the care of this client at this time?
a. Ensure that the client has voided
b. Administer all the daily medications
c. Practice postoperative breathing exercises
d. Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours

53. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment the nurse performs which assessment at first…..
a. Auscultation
b. Inspection
c. Palpation
d. Percussion

54. While giving a intradermal injection the needle should be held at ……
a. 15°
b. 45°
c. 30°
d. 90°

55. Appropriate temperature of solution prepared for sitz-bath should be………
a. 105-110° F
b. 100-105°F
c. 110-115°F
d. 115-120°F

56. The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should immediately be taken next………
a. Remove IV line
b. Run normal saline at a keeps vein often rate
c. Run a solution of 5% dextrose is water
d. Obtain a culture of the tip of catheter device removed from the client

57. When suctioning an unconscious client, which nursing intervention should the nurse prioritize in maintaining cerebral perfusion….
a. Administers diuretics
b. Provide hygiene
c .Administer analgesics
d. Hyper oxygenate before

58. Savlon is……..
a. Cetrimide
b. Chlorhexidine
c. Chloroxylenol
d. a and b

59. Scald is a burn caused by……….
a. Dry heat
b. Radiation
c. Moist heat
d. Friction

60. When you perform CPR on an unresponsive adult, you should correctly asses the pulse of which location?
a. Over the radial artery
b. Over the brachial artery
c. Over the carotid artery
d. Over the temporal artery

61. Which of the following would the nurse use as the most reliable indicator of a patient’s fluid balance status?
a. Intake and output
b. Complete blood count
c. Skin turgor
d. Daily weight

62. Health policy formation in Nepal since……
a. 1991 AD
b. 1998AD
c. 1995 AD
d. 1999AD

63. Trachoma is a disease of………….
a. Eye lid
b. Cornea
c. Conjunctiva
d. Lachrymal gland

64. Kopilk’s spot is the clinical feature of……….
a. Measles
b. Tuberculosis
c. Chicken pox
d. Leprosy

65. BCG vaccine is against………..
a. Measles
b. Diphtheria
c. Tuberculosis
d. Whooping cough

66. DOTS stand for………….
a. Directly observed treatment short course
b. Direct observed treatment short course
c. Direct observed treatment system
d. Directly observed treatment system

67. The vector for malaria is………….
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malaria
c. Plasmodium falciparium
d. female anopheles mosquito

68. HIV/AIDS is caused by a………….
a. Retro virus
b. Rhabdo virus
c .Rota virus
d. pox virus

69. Which of the following is waterborne disease?
a. Meningitis
b. Typhoid
c. Hepatitis A
d. Malaria

70. Kala-azar is caused by…………vector.
a. Malaria
b. Sand fly
c. Housefly
d. Bee

71. Syphilis is caused by………….
a. Salmonella Typhi
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Treponema palladium
d. Streptococcus

72. What type of vaccination is given against measles?
a. Live attenuated
b. killed
c. Toxoid
d. Inactive

73. Which of the following is principle of primary health care?
a. Health education
b. Mental health
c. Dental health
d. Community participation

74. Oral contraceptives act by……………
a. Preventing ovulation
b. Making endometrial non-reactive to embryo
c. Making inactive to sperm
d. Inhibiting sperm penetration to the ovum

75. The ages of child to receive DPT vaccine are………….
a. 6week,10week,14week
b. 6week, 7 week, 8 week
c. 6 week,7week,8week
d. 1 week, 2 week,3week

76. When was the ALMA ata conference held?
a. 1972
b. 1988
c. 1978
d. 1990

77. Which of the following comes under STDS disease?
a. HIV/AIDS
b. typhoid
c. diarrhea
d. leprosy

78. When oral contraceptives are prescribed for a patient, the nurse should teach the client about the potential of developing……….
a. Cervicitis
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Fibrocystic disease
d. Break through bleeding

79. Which of the following are not the 6 killer diseases?
a. ARI
b. Diarrhea
c. Measles
d. Meningitis

80. When emergency contraceptive should be taken after the unprotect sexual intercourse?
a. Within 24 hrs
b. Within 48hrs
c. Within 36 hrs
d. Within 72 hrs

81. What is the best method of solid waste disposal?
a. Compositing
b. Incineration
c. Dumping
d. Burial

82. Which of the following permanent family planning method requires contraceptives at least for 20 ejaculation surgery?
a. Vasectomy
b. laproscopy
c. Minilap
d. Norplant

83. The comprehensive assessment of the health status of an entire community is called……….
a. Community diagnosis
b. Home visit
c. Micro-teaching
d. Health education

84. Which type of approach is used in home visit?
a. Individual approach
b. Mass approach
c. Group approach
d. Media approach

85. Which of following contraceptives is excluded in the outreach clinic?
a. Oral pills
b. ORS packet
c. Condom
d. Norplant

86. The cases occurs irregular haphazardly form time to time and generally infrequently is…………
a. Epidemic
b. Sporadic
c. Pandermic
d. Endemic

87. The most commonly accepted family planning method in Nepal is………….
a. Oral pills
b. Condom
c. Depo-Provera
d. Norplant

88. In triangle, which color code should be given the first priority?
a . Red color
b. green color
c. yellow color
d. black color

89. Which one of the following planning method?
a. Norplant
b. Condom
c. Coitus interrupts
d. Tubectomy

90. Incubation period of influenza is…………
a. 6-18hrs
b. 12-36hrs
c. 18-72hrs
d. 1 week

91. When teaching a client about the post coital test to evaluate fertility, the nurse should tell the client that the time for the test is…………
a.1 week after ovulation
b. Immediately after menses
c. Just before the next menstrual period
d. Within 1 to 2 days of presumed ovulation

92. The most appropriate toy for a 3 year old child is………….
a. Large balls
b. A farm set
c. A golf set
d. Marbles

93. Which of the following individual are at the great risk for development of on integumentary disorder?
a. An adolescent
b. An older female
c. A physical education teacher
d. An outdoor construction worker

94. The patient is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effects to be expected is………..
a. Pyrexia
b. Diarrhea
c. Sore throat
d. Constipation

95. The pacemaker is used in some patient to make the normal function of…….
a. Av node
b. SA node
c. Bundle of his
d. Accelerator nerve to the heart

96. The nurse should position a client recovering from general anesthesia in…..
a. Supine position
b. Side lying position
c. High flower’s position
d. trendelen burg position

97. Pulmonary edema is associated with…………..
a. Right sided heart failure
b. Left sided heart failure
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Ventricular fibrillation

98. The person taking iron usually passes……….
a. Clay-colored stool
b. Quite black stool
c. Normal stool
d. light green

99. After the ovulation ovum remain alive for………
a. 10hrs
b. 16hrs
c. 24hrs
d. 48hrs

100. To limit painful attack, which food should the nurse teach a client with gut to avoid?
a. Eggs
b. liver
c. Cheese
d. Salmon