Nepal Pharmacy Council License Exam Model Questions Pharmacist

Collection of Questions for Name Registartion Exam of Pharmacist Nepal Pharmacy Council.

1. An alcoholic or hydro-alcoholic (more than 60% alcohol) solution of volatile substance is known?
A. Elixir
B. Spirit
C. Gargle
D. Tincture

Ans B

2. The introduction of liquid into the rectum via the anus for cleansing, stimulating bowel evacuation, or for other therapeutic or diagnostic purposes is referred to as……….
A. Enemas
B. Suppositories
C. Pessaries
D. Implants

Ans A

3. ……………. mill is used to reduce the particle size of sticky materials.
A. Rod
B. Fluid energy
C. Ball
D. Pin

Ans D

4. If the drug distributes instantly throughout the body, the drug follows ………….compartment model.
A. One
B. Non
C. Two
D. Three

Ans A

5. ………………. is required to calculate the loading dose:
A. AUC
B. Vd
C. Clearance
D. Cpmax

Ans B

6. BCS class drugs have low solubility and high permeability.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Ans B

7. To achieve proper coating, the spray angle should be kept at …………….º with the tablet bed.
A. 60
B. 45
C. 30
D. 90

Ans B

8. In this glass, the surface is treated with sulfur dioxide;
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type II
D. Type IV

Ans C

9. Hausner’s ratio between 1.12-1.18 indicates…
A. Excellent flow
B. Poor flow
C. Good flow
D. Very Poor flow

Ans C

10. The central part of a punch that receives compression force from the roller is;
A. Head
B. Head flat
C. Barrel
D. Inside Head angle

Ans C

11. During pre-formulation studies, the intrinsic solubility of a drug is measured at…
A. 4°C and 37°C
B. -4°C and 37°C
C. 8°C and 40°C
D. -8°C and 40°C

Ans A

12. Tabletose is:
A. Starch
B. Direct compressible starch
C. Direct compressible lactose
D. Dicalcium Phosphate

Ans B

13. According to I.P., the disintegration time of enteric coated tablet in mixed phosphate buffer( pH 6.8) after testing in 0.1MHCl is;
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minute
C. 2 hour
D. 45 minute

Ans A

14. Which of the following is the absorption base used to make ointment?
A. Hard Soft Paraffin
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Anhydrous Lanolin
D. White ointment

Ans C

15. The area under the serum concentration versus time curve represents
A. Biological half-life
B. Amount of drug cleared by kidneys
C. Amount of drug in original dosage form
D. Amount of drug absorbed

Ans B

16. PDCA cycle in quality means
A. Prepare, Do, Check, and Act
B. Perform, Do, Check, and Act
C. Plan, Do, Check and Act
D. Proceed, Do, Check, and Assure

Ans C

17. Wetting ability of the vehicle is detected by observing…
A. Contact angle
B. Critical angel
C. Angle of repose
D. Carr’s index

Ans B

18. The substance that increases the viscosity of the continuous phase in a suspension is called:
A. Suspending agent
B. Flocculating agent
C. Wetting agent
D. Dispersing agents

Ans A

19. Carr’s Consolidation index 5-10% means ……………………. Flow property.
A. Excellent
B. Good
C. Fair
D. Poor

Ans A

20. …………… is used to cut DNA molecules in rDNA technology
A. Ligase
B. Ribonuclease
C. Phosphatase
D.Restriction enzymes

Ans D

21. PPE in biosafety is …………
A. Public protective equipment
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Possible protective equipment
D. Passable protective equipment

Ans B

22. The Best method for Aspirin Tablet manufacturing is:
A. Wet granulation
B. Aqueous manual granulation
C. Aqueous autoprocessing
D. Dry granulation

Ans D

23. A decrease in moisture content of an empty capsule below 10% can render the capsule………
A. Brittle
B.Flexible
C. Sticky
D.Color loss

Ans A

24. Filler is synonymous with……..
A. Binder
B. Disintegrant
C. Diluents
D. Glidant

Ans C

25. In ……………..……., both heat and pressure are used.
A. Digestion
B. Infusion
C. Decoction
D. Maceration

Ans A

26. The ……… provides the alternative route to aromatic compounds, particularly amino acids such as Tyrosine, Tryptophan, etc.
A. Shikimate pathway
B. Acetate pathway
C. Mevalonate pathway
D. DOXP pathway

Ans A

27. Which one is cyanogenic glycoside?
A. Digoxin
B. Glycyrrhiza
C. Sennosides
D. Amygdalin

Ans D

28. Phenytoin can be synthesized by using;
A. Benzil
B. Benzoyl chloride
C.Glycine
D. Benzoic acid

Ans A

29. Which of the following is not a Catecholamine Neurotransmitter?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Noradrenalin
D. Adrenaline

Ans B

30. Dextromethorphane contains the following functional group in its aromatic ring:
A. CH3
B -OCH3
C. – O.H.
D. – COOH

Ans B

31. Pethidine and Procaine both contain N- alkyl radicals, and both are esters; during the first phase of metabolism, N- dealkylation occurs, which is denoted as:
A. Oxidative Reaction
B. Hydrolysis
C.Reductive Reaction
D. Electrophilic reaction

Ans A

32. ———- acts as antitussive by selectively suppressing cough without narcotic, analgesic, or dependence-inducing properties:
A. Codeine
B. Noscapine
C. Bromhexine
D. Pholcodeine

Ans B

33. Which of the following alkaloids contain the N-atom in the tertiary-amine form (R3N):
A. Morphine
B. Berberine
C. Ephedrine
D. Cocaine

Ans A

34. Which of the following is not an Analeptic stimulant?
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Amphetamine
D. Strychnine

Ans C

35. Which of the following denotes the polyene antibiotic?
A. Nystatin
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol

Ans A

36. Natural penicillins are strong ——–
A. Levorotatory
B. Enantiomers
C. Racemat
D. Dextrorotatory

Ans D

37. The actual name of the Tetracycline antibiotic given by IUPAC is:
A. Octahydronaphthacene
B. Saturated tetracyclic system
C. Octahydronathalene
D. Octahydrophenentrane

Ans A

38. Select the 8- 8-aminoquinoline derivative from the following list:
A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Quinine
D. Quinicraine

Ans B

39. Fill in the following blank: From a clinical standpoint, opioid ——————is one of the most powerful factors causing opioid dependence and addictive behaviors:
A. Consumption
B. Taking habit
C. Misuse
D. Withdrawal

Ans D

40. Which of the following denotes the polyketide antibiotic?
A. Nystatin
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol

Ans A

41. Dihydrothiazine ring is characteristic for:
A. Penicillins
B. Cephalosporin
C. Tetracycline
D. Carbapenem

Ans B

42. Which of the following is not the Iso-oxazolyl Penicillins
A. Oxacillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Dicloxacillin
D. Amoxycillin

Ans D

43. In the basic medium, Tetracycline forms ——————
A. Isoterracycline
B. Anhydrotetracycline
C. Rolitetracycline
D. Hydrotetracycline

Ans A

44. Which of the following functional groups is characteristic of Streptomycin?
A. Manose
B. Guanidino group
C. Glucosamine
D. Erythrose
Ans B

45. All nitrates are prodrugs and used as antianginal drugs that release ———– after metabolism:
A. Nitrates
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Nitric oxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide

Ans C

46. An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discolored anterior teeth. He had a history of antibiotic intake about four years earlier. Which antibiotic could be responsible for this condition?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Genetamicin

Ans C

47. Which of the following statements regarding asthma is incorrect?
A. It is an irreversible small airway obstruction
B. Asthmatics lungs are more sensitive to lower doses of allergens
C. Asthmatics should not use antihistamines
D. Progressive airway inflammation

Ans A

48. The antidiabetic agent most likely to cause lactic acidosis is:
A. Chlorpropamide
B. Glipizide
C. Tolbutamide
D. Metformin

Ans D

49. Which parameters can get elevated after thiazide diuretic administration?
A. Potassium
B. BUN
C. Urea
D. Glucose

Ans A

50. This antibiotic is not used to treat peptic ulcer disease associated with Helicobacter pylori.
A. Amoxicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clarithromycin

Ans B

51. Which of the following is the fastest-acting anticoagulant?
A. Warfarin
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Heparin
D. Vitamin K

Ans C

52. The very widely used drug Losartan is a:
A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist
B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist
C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist
D. AT1 receptor partial agonist

Ans A

53. Pancuronium is differentiated from tubocurarine in that:
A. It’s a depolarizing blocker.
B. Neostigmine does not reverse its action.
C. It can cause a rise in B.P. on rapid I.V. injection
D. It causes marked histamine release

Ans C

54. N-acetyl cysteine is an antidote for acute poisoning from:
A. Salicylates
B. Theophylline
C. Acetaminophen
D. Lithium

Ans C

55. Which of the following is a phase II drug metabolism reaction?
A. Acetylation
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Hydrolysis

Ans A

56. Proton pump inhibitors are more effective when they are given
A. After meals
B. Shortly before meal
C. Along with H2 blocker
D. During a prolonged fasting period

Ans B

57. Gynecomastia can occur as a side effect of
A. Bromocriptine
B. Famotidine
C. Cimetidine
D. Levodopa

Ans C

58. In which of the following phases of a clinical trial of a drug is ethical clearance not required
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C. Phase II
D. Phase IV

Ans D

59. A highly ionized drug:
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
B. Crosses the placental barrier easily
C. Is easily absorbed from the intestine
D. Is highly protein bound

Ans A

60. Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Lithium
B. Penicillin
C. Diazepam
D. Desipramine

Ans A

61. Maximum first-pass metabolism is seen by which route
A. Intravenous
B. Rectal
C. Intraarterial
D. Oral

Ans D

62. Drug safely given in pregnancy is
A. Antifolate
B. Chloroquine
C. Tetracycline
D. Primaquine

Ans B

63. Type B adverse drug reactions.
A. Augmented Effect of Drug
B. Unpredictable bizarre reaction
C. Effect seen on chronic use of the drug
D. Delayed Effect of the drug

Ans B

64. Amount of drug left after four plasm half-lives
A. 6.25%
B. 25%
C. 12.5%
D. 50%

Ans A

65. Drugs with high protein binding will have
A. Less glomerular filtration
B. High volume of distribution
C. Less displacement reaction with other drugs
D. Less tubular secretion

Ans A

66. Dry Cough is an adverse reaction to intake of
A. Prazocin
B. Nifedipine
C. Enalapril
D. Thiazide

Ans C

67. MOA of action of aspirin is:
A. inhibits Cox-1 preferentially
B. inhibits Cox-2 preferentially
C. inhibits Cox-1 & Cox-2 reversibly
D. inhibits Cox-1 & Cox-2 irreversibly

Ans D

68. Ketamine as a general anesthetic is also known as:
A. CNS stimulant
B. Dissociative anesthetic
C. Partial anesthetic
D. ANS stimulant

Ans B

69. At pharmacological doses, unwanted, unavoidable effects are called
A. Toxicity
B. Side effects
C. Idiosyncratic reactions
D. Pharmacogenetics

Ans B

70. Cyclopropane is a –
A. Local anesthetic
B. General anaesthetic
C. Antibiotic
D. Antioxidant

Ans B

71. The word “Hospital” is derived comes from the Latin noun “hopes,” which stands for: “————————-“
A. Guest or visitor
C. Friend or well-wisher
B. Relative or visitor
D. Neighbor or visitor

Ans A

72. Which method does not come under the perpetual inventory?
A. Pegboard method
B. Computer method
C. Automated method
D. Non-automated method

Ans D

73. Regarding the Amoxycillin 250 mg D.T., which of the statements below is correct?
A. it is equally or more stable than the syrup dosage form
B. It should not be dissolved in water
C. It should be taken with lemon water
D. It is mainly used for cancer patients

Ans B

74. One litre of Dextrose 5% fluid contains
A. 25 grams of Glucose
B. 12.5 grams of Glucose
C. 50 grams of Glucose
D. 100 grams of Glucose

Ans C

75. Tapering dose is related to one of the following drugs?
A. Salbutamol
B. Azithromycin
C. Prednisolone
D. Ciprofloxacin

Ans C

76. The thyroid gland normally secretes which of the following substances into the serum?
A. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Diiodothyronine (DIT)
D. Thyroxine (T4)

Ans D

77. “Unit dose system” is one of the wards’ main effective drug delivery systems. As per this system, basically, the drug is supplied to wards for
A. 24 hrs
B. 2 days
C. 48 hrs
D. 7 days

Ans A

78. Entecavir is a drug used in the treatment of:
A. Hepatitis B
B. HIV
C. Corona
D. Common cold

Ans A

79. Metallic taste’ is provoked by the use of
A. Biguanides
B. Metronidazole
C. Albendazole
D. Cefixime

Ans B

80. The Nepal Government has received the coronavirus vaccine as a donation from India. What is the dose and frequency of the vaccine?
A. 0.5 mL and two doses
B. 0.5 ML single dose
C. 1 mL single dose
D. 0.5 Ml 3 doses

Ans A

81. VED analysis is related?
A. Floor stock system
B. Stock Analysis
C.Patient prescription system
D. Unit dose system

Ans A

82. Pharmacovigilance is the pharmacological science relating to the adverse effects of pharmaceutical products except
A. Collecting
B. Assessment
C. Detection
D. Enhancing

Ans D

83. One of the following is the antidote of Heparin overdose
A. Protamine Sulphate
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Flumazenil
D. Pralidoxime

Ans A

84. Is therapeutic drug monitoring required for drugs?
A. Very low therapeutic index.
B. Low therapeutic index
C. High therapeutic index.
D. Oral Analgesic

Ans B

85. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating the dose for children except
A. Height
B. Disease condition
C. Weight
D. Body surface area

Ans A

86. What is outside the aims of the hospital formulary system?
A. Evaluation, appraisal, and selection of medicine.
B. Guiding physicians for prescribing
C. Appraisal and use of non-formulary drugs
D. Listing drugs in generic name

Ans C

87. What are the therapeutic outcomes for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. To keep blood glucose levels above 80 mg/dl
B. To keep blood glucose between 80-130 mg/dl
C. To prevent hypoglycemia
D. To prevent hyperglycemia

Ans B

88. Standard treatment protocol
A. Reduce the treatment cost
B. Systematically developed statements to help practitioners
C. They should contain information on clinical features.
D. Individualized

Ans B

89. The HbA1c test is done in the following condition
A. Anaemia
B. Thyroid problem
C. Cardiac problem
D. Diabetes

Ans D

90. Why is warfarin tagged as a “special drug” when it comes to checking process before administration?
A. They need to be dissolved before administration.
B. Clients often have difficulties in swallowing these medications.
C. They need to be crushed before administering
D. They have a narrow therapeutic index, and there is a greater potential for toxicity if mistakes in dosage occur

Ans D

91. What is the nature of a drug idiosyncrasy?
A. It is an unexpected reaction to the medication.
B. It is a normal response to medication.
C. It is an intentional response to medication.
D. It is a unique reaction to medication

Ans A

92. The calorie value of protein is
A. 4.0 Kcal/g
B. 9.0 Kcal/g
C. 15.0 Kcal/g
D.12.0 Kcal/g

Ans A

93. Which one of the following statements regarding medication history is incorrect?
A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access drug abuse

Ans D

94. Nephrotoxicity is one of the complications of
A. Penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporines
D. Tetracyclines

Ans B

95. Which of the following statements regarding medication history must be corrected?
A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access the drug abuse.

Ans D

96. How many grams of citric acid is required to neutralize one molar NaOH when 1 mole of citric acid= 3 moles NaOH and M.W. of citric acid =192.10 g?
A. 0.06403 g
B. 0.6403 g
C. 64 g
D. 0.006403 g

Ans C

97. What is the color of indicator Phenolphthalein at pH above 11:
A. Colorless
B. Pink
C. Red
D. Green

Ans B

98. Which of the following is false about wavelengths of electromagnetic Radiation?
A. Radiation with short wavelengths has high energies
B. Energy does not depend on the wavelength
C. Radiation with long wavelengths has low energies
D. Energy depends on the wavelength

Ans B

99. Chromatography is a physical method that is used to separate and analyze_________
A. Simple mixtures
B. Viscous mixtures
C. Complex mixtures
D. Metals

Ans C

100. NMR is the study of absorption of ________ by nuclei in a magnetic field.
A. Radioactive Radiation
B. Radiofrequency radiation
C. I.R. radiation
D. Microwaves

Ans B